1: Defined by Allport (1935) as a “mental state of readiness, organized through experience, exerting a directing or dynamic influence on the individual’s response to situations,” this is known as a(n)A: CognitionB: BehaviorC: DissonanceD: AttitudeE: Perception2: The Tri-Component model suggests that human attitudes have 3 factors, that are:A: Love, Intimacy, PassionB: Biological, Chemical, LearnedC: Physical, Mental, SpiritualD: Behavioral, Mechanical, MentalE: Actions, Beliefs, Feelings3: Festinger (1957) suggested _________ to refer to when we perceive an inconsistency between two or more of our internal attitudes or between our behavior and attitudes.A: Attitude ShiftB: Cognitive DissonanceC: DisequilibriumD: PsychoneuroticE: Perceptual Illusion4: Attitudes are very individual and subjective, and therefore we do not currently have ways to measure an employee’s attitude about their jobs.A: TRUEB: FALSE5: The process by which we interpret and organize sensory information to produce a meaningful experience of the world, is known as _______.A: AttitudeB: PerceptionC: CognitionD: IntuitionE: Judgment6: When a person limits their processing of information by only paying attention to certain select information based on prior experience, beliefs or attitudes, this is called ___________A: Dual StimulationB: Cognitive DeficitC: Selective AttentionD: Reverse FilteringE: Registration7: If we claim an outside force motivated an event this is known as ________ compared with when we assign causal factors to ourselves or a person, known as __________.A: Extraverted; Self-serving biasB: Internal Locus of Control; External Locus of ControlC: Internal Attribution; External AttributionD: External Attribution; Internal AttributionE: Public Perception Management, Internal Perception Management8: Preconceived thoughts or beliefs can affect whether or not we hear opinions or information that does not agree with our preconceived thoughtsA: TRUEB: FALSE9: Managers make attributions about employees based on “consistency” and “distinctiveness” as well as _____________ which is “the extent to which an employee’s performance is the same or different from other employees”A: AttributesB: StereotypeC: ConsensusD: DifferentiationE: Habit10: A hich of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personalityhich of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personality, but is therefore also perceived to be a good hospital for Gastric surgeries as well. This generalized carryover based on just one characteristic is known as __________A: StereotypeB: Placebo EffectC: Horn EffectD: Halo EffectE: Angel syndrome11: When a person evaluates another person as generally low on many traits after observing poor performance on just one trait… this negative carryover effect is known as _______A: StereotypeB: Placebo EffectC: Horn EffectD: Halo EffectE: Angel syndrome12: From reading about the “contrast effect” in person perception, we know that if compared to a highly attractive person, a target person will be judged as ____________ than s/he would have been if rated on his or her own.A: More attractiveB: Less attractiveC: Neutral – contrasts have no effects on judgment of attractivenessD: Less attractive if male, more attractive if femaleE: None of the above13: A defensive mechanism where we attribute our own attitudes onto someone else, such as “My friend tempted me with a desert and made me go off my diet.”A: ProcrastinationB: ProjectionC: ProsocializationD: Halo EffectE: Stereotyping14: Overly generalized, and typically negative, views about a group of people is known as a __________A: StereotypeB: ProjectionC: Halo EffectD: Pygmalion EffectE: Sublimation15: Price Waterhouse v. Hopkins was a legal case where a female lawyer claimed discrimination based on gender stereotyped statementsA: TRUEB: FALSE16: Another name for the “self fulfilling prophesy” where individuals tend to live up to other’s stated expectations about usA: StereotypeB: ProjectionC: Halo EffectD: Pygmalion EffectE: Sublimation17: Employee selection can be aided by the use of _________ which is the general use of measurements of human ability, personality, potential and other factorsA: I.Q. testingB: Personality testingC: PsychometricsD: Rorschach (inkblot) testsE: None of the above18: It’s a good idea for a manager to hire workers exclusively based on the score of a personality test.A: TRUEB: FALSE19: Extroverts do best in quiet, non-social jobs such as computer work, while Introverts show the best job performance when they must work and present in front of large groups of peopleA: TRUEB: FALSE20: Which of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personality traits measured with personality tests?A: NeuroticismB: SpiritualityC: ExtroversionD: AgreeablenessE: Openness1: Motivation is described as the conscious or unconscious stimulus, incentive, or motives for action towards a goal resulting from psychological or social factors, the factors giving the purpose or direction to behavior.A: TRUEB: FALSE2: The three components of the process of motivation are:A: goals, incentives, and behaviorB: behavior, wants, and directionC: incentives, behavior and goalsD: unsatisfied need, drive, and satisfied need3: The content theories of motivation focus on the assumption that individuals are motivated by the desire to satisfy their inner needs.A: TRUEB: FALSE4: Process theories of motivation focus on the cognitive processes underlying an individual’s level of motivation.A: TRUEB: FALSE5: The levels in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs are:A: growth, relatedness, and existenceB: satisfiers, physiological, relatedness, self-esteem, and safetyC: physiological, affiliation, safety, self-actualization, and self-esteemD: hygiene, affiliation, safety, satisfiers, and self-actualizationE: self-actualization, self-esteem, affiliation, safety, and physiological6: Employee motivation has a direct impact on a health services organization’s performanceA: TRUEB: FALSE7: According to Alderfer, individuals must satisfy their lower level needs, at least to an acceptable state, before the person can be motivated to achieve higher level needs.A: TRUEB: FALSE8: Managers need to be conscious of the fact that all employees are not driven by the same needs, nor is any employee driven by the same need, at the same time.A: TRUEB: FALSE9: Alder’s ERG theory like Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs requires an individual to satisfy a lower level need for a higher-level need to become the driver of a person’s behavior.A: TRUEB: FALSE10: The three categories of Alderfer’s ERG theory are:A: existence, relatedness, and gainB: existence, relatedness, and growthC: extrinsic, recognition, and growthD: environment, recognition, and gain11: The frustration-regression principle of the ERG theory explains that when a barrier prevents an individual from obtaining a higher level need, a person may “regress” to a lower-level need (or visa versa) to achieve satisfaction.A: TRUEB: FALSE12: Although an employee may have multiple needs to satisfy, managers must focus exclusively on one need at a time will to be effective in motivating an employee.A: TRUEB: FALSE13: According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory, motivators do not include:A: salaryB: recognitionC: responsibilityD: work itselfE: advancement14: According to Herzberg, the opposite of job satisfaction is job dissatisfaction.A: TRUEB: FALSE15: Hygiene factors relate to job content and motivators/satisfiers relate to job context.A: TRUEB: FALSE16: Employees will be motivated to do work that they perceive to be significant.A: TRUEB: FALSE17: Which of the following is not one of the five core motivational job characteristics identified by Hackman and Oldham?A: skill varietyB: task significanceC: autonomyD: feedbackE: advancement18: The three types of motivational needs identified by McClelland are:A: advancement, power, and affiliationB: power, affiliation, and growthC: affiliation, growth, and advancementD: achievement, power and affiliation19: Each content theory of motivation is separate, distinct, and unrelated.A: TRUEB: FALSE20: Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs had a great influence on the study of organizational behavior.A: TRUEB: FALSE1: Conflict is inevitable and unavoidableA: TRUEB: FALSE2: Conflict occurs when an individual or group feels negatively affected by another individual or group.A: TRUEB: FALSE3: Although there are numerous definitions of conflict, there are two common components to most definitions: (1) perceived incompatibility of interests, and (2) some interdependence of the parties.A: 0B: 0C: 0D: 0E: 04: Because all conflict leads to ineffectiveness, managers must create an organizational culture of cooperation.A: TRUEB: FALSE5: Conflict occurs when the ideas and thoughts within an individual or between individuals are incompatible. This is an example of what type of conflict?A: goalB: cognitiveC: affectiveD: procedural6: Conflict occurs when two or more desired or expected outcomes are incompatible. This is an example of what type of conflict?A: goalB: cognitiveC: affectiveD: procedural7: _________________ happens when several alternative courses of action are available and when the outcome is important to the individual whether positive or negative.A: Intrapersonal cognitive conflictB: Intrapersonal affective conflictC: Intrapersonal goal conflict8: The following is an example of what type of intrapersonal conflict, When an individual must choose an alternative that is expected to have both positive and negative outcomes.A: Avoidance/avoidanceB: Approach/approachC: Approach/avoidance9: Cognitive dissonance occurs when individuals recognize inconsistencies in their thoughts and behavior.A: TRUEB: FALSE10: _____________ occurs when the expectations associated with a work role are incompatible with the individual’s needs, values, or ethics.A: Person-role conflictB: Intrarole conflictC: Interrole conflictD: Interpersonal conflict11: _______________ involves two or more individuals who believe that their attitudes, behaviors, or preferred goals are in opposition.A: Intrapersonal conflictB: Interpersonal conflictC: Intragroup conflictD: Intergroup conflictE: Interorganizational conflict12: A lack of communication skills combined with our personal and cultural differences, creates powerful deficits in our ability to relate to each other. Because of this broad-based inadequacy, interpersonal conflicts regularly emerge.A: TRUEB: FALSE13: There are three types of intragroup conflict: (1) relationship, (2) task, and (3) process.A: TRUEB: FALSE14: Of the four categories of intergroup conflict, which one relates authority relationships?A: Vertical conflictB: Horizontal conflictC: Line-staff conflictD: Diversity-based conflict15: What type of intergroup conflict may occur when supervisors attempt to control subordinates?A: Vertical conflictB: Horizontal conflictC: Line-staff conflictD: Diversity-based conflict16: Integration of organizations that involves extensive linking of providers at different points in the patient care continuum causes the lowest level of interorganizational conflict.A: TRUEB: FALSE17: Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one reflects a win-lose approach to conflict?A: AvoidanceB: AccommodationC: CompetitionD: CompromiseE: Collaboration18: Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one reflects a win-win approach to conflict?A: AvoidanceB: AccommodationC: CompetitionD: CompromiseE: Collaboration19: Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one involves unassertive and uncooperative behaviors?A: AvoidanceB: AccommodationC: CompetitionD: CompromiseE: Collaboration20: Individuals use the bounded rationality model to decision-making when there is sufficient time for an orderly, thoughtful process.A: TRUEB: FALSE21: The rational model is considered the “ideal” method of decision-making.A: TRUEB: FALSE22: Managers are under the constraints of limited time and resources, personal bias and other factors, which make rational decision-making unrealistic.A: TRUEB: FALSE23: The expression “bounded rationality” is used to denote the type of rationality that managers resort to when the environment in which they operate is too complex relative to their cognitive limitations.A: TRUEB: FALSE24: _______________ decision-making involves using one’s professional judgment based on past experiences rather than sequential logic or explicit reasoningA: Bounded rationalityB: IntuitionC: HeuristicsD: Biases25: _______________ are guidelines or “rules of thumb” that help make our world manageable by simplifying complex tasksA: Bounded rationalityB: IntuitionC: HeuristicsD: Biases26: _____________ bias is an intuitive technique where the perceived probability of an event is influenced by the ease of recollection.
A: AdjustmentB: AnchoringC: RepresentativenessD: Availability27: High quality decision-making is attributable to escalation of commitment by a manager.A: TRUEB: FALSE28: Framing heuristic is a tendency to make a decision based on the form or manner in which information is presented.A: TRUEB: FALSE29: Managers differ along two dimensions in the way they approach decision-making: value orientation and tolerance for ambiguity. Value orientation reflects the extent to which a person has a high need for structure or control in his or her life.A: TRUEB: FALSE30: Of the four basic decision styles, which one is associated with high tolerance for ambiguity and a high cognitive complexity?A: DirectiveB: AnalyticC: ConceptualD: Behavioral31: Of the four basic decision styles, which one is associated with low tolerance for ambiguity and low cognitive complexity with a focus on technical decisions?A: DirectiveB: AnalyticC: ConceptualD: Behavioral32: With training, managers can use all four decision styles effectively as different situations are presented, however, individuals have a tendency to resort to a single, dominant style (i.e., default mode of decision making).A: TRUEB: FALSE33: Negotiation may be defined as the process by which two or more parties decide what each will give and take in an exchange.A: TRUEB: FALSE34: ____________ negotiation is often referred to as “hard-bargaining” or a win-lose, zero-sum approach.A: IntegrativeB: InteractiveC: Distributive35: ___________ negotiation is a cooperative, interest-based, agreement-oriented approach to dealing with conflict that is viewed as a “win/win” or mutual gain dispute.A: IntegrativeB: InteractiveC: Distributive1: Groups can be categorized into three broad groups: primary, secondary, and reference.A: TRUEB: FALSE2: ____________ groups are those that we compare ourselves to for developing our personal behavior and social attitudes.A: PrimaryB: SecondaryC: ReferenceD: FormalE: Informal3: __________ groups are organized based on members’ common interests or goals.A: PrimaryB: SecondaryC: ReferenceD: FormalE: Informal4: Managers need to be aware that ____________ groups can be a powerful force within their organization.A: PrimaryB: SecondaryC: ReferenceD: FormalE: Informal5: __________ groups are created by the organization, therefore, they are part of the organization’s formal structure.A: PrimaryB: SecondaryC: ReferenceD: FormalE: Informal6: Groups go through sequential stages of development. The following is as example of what development stage: High levels of emotion because members are trying to find their group identity and exert their individuality.A: FormingB: StormingC: NormingD: PerformingE: Adjourning7: Groups go through sequential stages of development. The following is as example of what development stage: In this stage the rules for behavior are explicitly and implicitly defined. There is a greater degree of order and a strong sense of group membership.A: FormingB: StormingC: NormingD: PerformingE: Adjourning8: The group decision making process usually takes longer than an individual decision making process.A: TRUEB: FALSE9: Groups produce less and lower quality solutions to problems than do individuals working alone, because there are too many people involved in group decision making.A: TRUEB: FALSE10: There are four factors that play an important part regarding the quality of a group’s decision: (1) the group should be diverse, (2) members need be feel that they are in a “safe” environment so their ideas can be expressed freely, (3) the degree of task interdependence must be high, and (4) the group must have the potency for success.A: TRUEB: FALSE11: The nominal group technique is a brainstorming technique that assists to overcome the challenge faced by group members who may lack the experience to understand that the information they hold is needed to generate and evaluate options or alternatives.A: TRUEB: FALSE1: Organization development incorporates which of the following characteristics:A: use of a behavioral scientistB: rapid response to changeC: systematic approachD: a and b onlyE: a and c only2: All change in organizations should be considered an Organizational Development initiative.A: TRUEB: FALSE3: Behavioral science is important in OD because:A: organizations should have an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) to help employees through any change processB: understanding relationships is critical to the change processC: organizations should have an understanding of how members react to changeD: all of the aboveE: b and c4: The role of the OD Practitioner is to:A: facilitate the change processB: work closely with the organizationC: have ultimate accountability for the success off the changeD: work with the client to understand and move forward with the change process successfully5: Which of the following is an important skill set of an OD Practitioner?A: technical skillsB: interpersonal skillsC: consulting skillsD: none of the aboveE: all of the above6: It is better to hire an external consultant versus using an OD professional who is an employee of the organization because the external consultant will be able to psychological distance him/herself from the organization .A: TRUEB: FALSE7: Which of the following is an advantage to utilizing an external consultant?A: knowledge of the organizationB: better data collection expertiseC: knowledge and experience of a particular interventionD: a lack of objectivity8: Which of the following is an advantage to utilizing an internal consultant (i.e., employee of the organization)?A: knowledge of the organizationB: better data collection expertiseC: knowledge and experience of a particular interventionD: a lack of objectivity9: The goal of action research is to base the intervention on initial research, then to follow up the process with feedback through further data analysis to determine the effectiveness or impact, make adjustments as necessary, and ultimately use the results to feed additional research.A: TRUEB: FALSE10: During the __________ phase of the action research model, mutual expectations are identified.A: entering and contractingB: diagnosisC: feedbackD: action11: The ___________ phase involves a strategic collection and analysis of data from the organization.A: entering and contractingB: diagnosisC: feedbackD: action12: The most frequently used method of data collection is:A: questionnairesB: interviewsC: observationD: unobtrusive methods13: Financial reports, turnover rates, exit interviews and customer satisfaction reults are all examples of what type of data collection?A: questionnairesB: interviewsC: observationD: unobtrusive methods14: The “Hawthorne effect” in one potential pitfall of the observation method of data collection.A: TRUEB: FALSE15: Which data collection method might enable the practitioner to learn more about communication patterns, leadership issues, or ineffective conflict resolution strategies in the team?A: questionnairesB: interviewsC: observationD: unobtrusive methods16: Changing from a functional to a matrix structure is an example of which type of intervention?A: strategicB: technostructuralC: human processD: human resource management17: Which of the following interventions deal primarily with issues between people in an organization?A: strategicB: technostructuralC: human processD: human resource management18: A career planning system is an example of which type of intervention?A: strategicB: technostructuralC: human processD: human resource management19: A diversification in products is an example of which type of intervention?A: strategicB: technostructuralC: human processD: human resource management20: The true test of an organizational intervention is the outcome.A: TRUEB: FALSE21: The goal of process improvement interventions is to increase efficiency.A: TRUEB: FALSE22: This intervention is designed to enable groups of people to work together on a single problem, and through a regimented process utilizing specific problem solving tools.A: team buildingB: process improvementC: total quality managementD: work design23: Which of the following intervention is mistakenly often seen as the only intervention needed, but the goal of this intervention should be to build or improve a skill base?A: team buildingB: process improvementC: trainingD: work design
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